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How is it possible for it to say in the Book of Acts that James I of Aragon carried falles to light his way...the Book of Acts was written about 1,100 years before James I was born. I think I'm going to remove that line, because it's simply not possible, by my understanding. I find a reference to a "Book of the Deeds of James I of Aragon"...is this a language issue, someone mistaking "acts" for "deeds"? AnnaGoFast (talk) 00:03, 22 April 2016 (UTC)[reply]
It was just a translation mistake. --Jotamar (talk) 15:10, 25 April 2016 (UTC)[reply]
